I think I articulated my point pretty well: you're making a tautology (i.e. saying nothing).
But in your new post, you make a new (stronger) point. Unfortunately, it's decidedly untrue.
Civilization has had, in fact, religious courts (of a variety of religions) for most of its existence. Is it an optimal way of dispensing justice? Probably not, but my argument was simply that it is (and has been) a tenable option. In fact, the judicial concept of Lex Talionis originates in the Scriptures (and in Babylonian law before it).
Your point is a tautology (people can corrupt institutions). Or were you trying to say something we don't already know?