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I agree with the last part. But here OP said "we presume X is not a factor", and then goes on to conclude X is not a factor.

OP requires evidence for biological differences, but requires no such thing for the discrimination theory.

Throwing around "epistomological presumption", "corollary"' and "prima facie" does not make this a scientific argument.

In reality there is plenty of evidence for biological gender differences (and for discrimination). Pinker's "Blank Slate" is a good start if you have time to read 600 pages.



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