1. I don't see how Ceylon can be the origin. There is no evidence to back this.
2. How can Brahmi numerals have come into India around 850 BC when Sanskrit already existed during that time period. Again, these claims make no sense. Brahmi scripture is considered older than Sanskrit. How can it be introduced after Sanskrit was already popular? The Vedic scriptures (written in Sanskrit) date back to 1500 BC. Why is it so hard to not realise that maybe it was Mesopotamians who accepted the Brahmi numerals and not the other way round?
2. How can Brahmi numerals have come into India around 850 BC when Sanskrit already existed during that time period. Again, these claims make no sense. Brahmi scripture is considered older than Sanskrit. How can it be introduced after Sanskrit was already popular? The Vedic scriptures (written in Sanskrit) date back to 1500 BC. Why is it so hard to not realise that maybe it was Mesopotamians who accepted the Brahmi numerals and not the other way round?