Right, but the argument is that "the cop can tell the judge" is somehow not sufficient to imply that this information can be used against the person in court. But what other reason would there be to tell the judge? It seems like a pretty obvious implication that if the cop tells it to the judge, it can be used in court.
It's misleading I think, people generally know the judge is supposed to be impartial, it's the "used against you" part that is key. Surprisingly few people realize that you should under no circumstances talk to the police without a lawyer, especially if you're innocent.
