You’re not the first person I’ve seen equate the plight and horror of slaves and slavery to the contemporary condition of the LGTB community in a modern, first world, secular society, but I can’t help but wonder at exactly how it is that you arrived at that conviction.
(1) that's not what “equivocate” means (as in there is no definition of “equivocate” which fits that sentence structure.)
(2) If you mean something like “paints an equivalence between”, I didn't. I provided an illustration of the concept that the existence of a cultural difference does not imply equal validity of both sides of the difference.
(3) The attitudes rejecting homosexuality are almost entirely not found in secular society, though they may be found in national whose government is, nominally at least, secular.
2. you did, and your illustration provided no such thing; it’s a strawman with no bearing in reality, and your very self-same argument can be used to undermine your own position...
In that one respect, yes.
> There is simply a cultural disconnect
Yes, much like there was once a “cultural disconnect” over whether human beings could legitimately be treated as property rather than persons.