The difference is definitely genetic. Colorblindness is generally caused by recessive genes that are part of the X chromosome. That means that the proportion of men who are colorblind is basically equal to the proportion of X chromosomes with one of these recessive genes. Women have two sets, so they need the gene on both chromosomes in order to exhibit colorblindness. This means that their proportion of colorblindness is roughly the square of that of men (actually less because there are different types of colorblindness).
Yes but i'm talking about the statistic having a potentially invalid baseline because of the method of testing gives some people an advantage separate from physical ability to perceive colour depending on how they complete the test.
Could we not also correct by simply telling the participants this technique (I used it too and have the same experience of only being 100% sure after bubble sort)
