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In England theft requires dishonest appropriation with the intent to permanently deprive the owner.

I'm not sure what he did meets all of those tests. I'm not sure it meets "dishonest" - it sounds like it was a simple mistake.




I think the amount stolen here probably precludes prosecution in most jurisdictions. But I have trouble believing that if it was a larger amount he'd be able to just say: "I was mistaken, I thought their money was my money." I'm not a lawyer but that seems like far too abusable of a defense.


According to what he says happened, this couldn't have happened with a larger amount without him realizing it.

Theft in the US afaik is also defined as "intent to deprive". That's why e.g. joyriding is different than grand theft auto.




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