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Saying Republicans responded to so sonething by having John Roberts vote a certain way in the Supreme Court shows an ignorance of how the court works.


I believe there was a much clearer more charitable reading of the above than assuming the person posting doesn't understand the difference between a political party and a Supreme Court.

There was a action. That action was a effective repeal of the voting rights act. The Supreme Court performed that action.

A political party responded to that act by rolling back voting rights.


While this is a possible interpretation the paragraph puts a lot of weight on the supreme court decision and doesn't seem to mention any legislative or executive decisions that were enabled by the court.


OP does not say that Roberts itself was part of that "response", but that the decision enabled it.




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