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> so far it seems like "no", or "not yet"

On the contrary, it does indeed and has been known to do so for many decades [0,1]

Indeed, in Citizens United, SCOTUS in the concurring opinion claimed the founders intent in the 1st amendment was to allow monied interests to own and influence media for political purposes.

The question is not whether distortion exists but how prevalent it is.

[0]https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jane_Akre

[1]https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noam_Chomsky#News_media_and_pr...




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