> SBF's claim is that Alameda took a margin loan as an FTX customer just like any other customer might, and then lost their money gambling.
Is it normal for margin loan funds to come from customer deposits? For example, if I deposit on Charles Schwab, is the cash held in my Schwab account used as capital for margin loans to other Schwab customers? I would think not (unless I'm misunderstanding how finance works). Like of course the money is probably lent out like banks do, but FDIC insured banks have rules about what types of things they can lend money to, right?
I would think that using customer deposits to make margin loans to other customers would be fraud even if Alameda wasn't in the picture. That's what I fundamentally don't understand about SBF's mumbo jumbo; how would Alameda (or any other customer) take a margin loan out of customer funds if customer funds are supposed to be segregated from FTX company funds? Isn't the admission that a margin loan to Alameda led to the loss of customer funds an admission that depositors were defrauded?
Brokers and exchanges are obligated to park customers' money in an escrow, and may even be required to insure them [1] for a good measure. Under no circumstance are customers' funds lent out. So where do they get money from to lend? Brokers lend either their own money or get into arrangements with liquidity providers. These are big institutions/hedge-funds etc., who offer to lend money in exchange for attractive returns. They get into a different agreements and are fully aware of risks they are taking on.
> For example, if I deposit on Charles Schwab, is the cash held in my Schwab account used as capital for margin loans to other Schwab customers? I would think not (unless I'm misunderstanding how finance works). Like of course the money is probably lent out like banks do, but FDIC insured banks have rules about what types of things they can lend money to, right?
Traditionally, lending deposits out as loans (especially mortgages) was seen as the most important thing that banks did, their core function. Nowadays things are more abstract and regulations are different, but it wouldn't surprise me if margin loans could still be at least partly funded (at least in an abstract capital-ratio sense) from deposits.
FTX was a brokerage though, not a bank. While banks may be inherently allowed to accept and lend out customer funds, brokerages seem to be largely forbidden from doing so.[0] SBF appeared to act as if the typical rules of operating a security brokerage didn't apply to FTX 'because crypto.'
This is a core business line of broker dealers. However I believe in the US your risk is limited to 140% of the value of your margin loan. If you have no margin loan then your securities need to kept in a separate/segregated client account.
This all was a big problem I. The us up through Great Depression, and then the securities exchange act of 1934 was implement to regulate these practices quite successfully over the years.
Is it normal for margin loan funds to come from customer deposits? For example, if I deposit on Charles Schwab, is the cash held in my Schwab account used as capital for margin loans to other Schwab customers? I would think not (unless I'm misunderstanding how finance works). Like of course the money is probably lent out like banks do, but FDIC insured banks have rules about what types of things they can lend money to, right?
I would think that using customer deposits to make margin loans to other customers would be fraud even if Alameda wasn't in the picture. That's what I fundamentally don't understand about SBF's mumbo jumbo; how would Alameda (or any other customer) take a margin loan out of customer funds if customer funds are supposed to be segregated from FTX company funds? Isn't the admission that a margin loan to Alameda led to the loss of customer funds an admission that depositors were defrauded?