A valid interpretation but not the only way to describe it. If a merchant offers a 10% discount for spending $1000 or more, are they making lower-spending customers subsidize the purchases of higher-spending ones? Are they transferring wealth from poor to rich?
Technically yes. But what would the impact be of outlawing the practice of volume discounts through a “policy change”?
Technically yes. But what would the impact be of outlawing the practice of volume discounts through a “policy change”?