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They raise a good point, which I've never considered before. This could be considered a form of dividend arbitrage based on the difference in scheduling between the component dividends vs the fund dividends, based on the knowledge that a non-zero amount of fund holders will exit the fund before the once a year dividend date, but not before the fund earned dividends based on the fund components.


Nevermind, it looks like baking cleared up my misconception in another reply.




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