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Do you think trying to mislead people with fake signs and numbers so their vote doesn't get counted is a thing people should be allowed to do by law? What about fraud?


As a juror, I would expect such a trial to at least be able to produce a single victim that could testify on the stand that they got deceived before I would vote guilty.


I'm not following your reasoning. No one falling for it means they didn't commit a crime, or it's evidence they weren't really trying to deceive anyone? I don't think federal crimes have to have a single "victim" for it to be a crime, though obviously I'm not lawyer.


A victimless crime?




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