> I’m bringing it up because I find it surprising that everyone you’ve worked with is neurotypical.
So there are two potential explanations there. The one where I don't see neurodivergence where it does exist and the other one where you do see it where it does not. Would you be OK with 50/50 probability each of these options being right as the baseline assumption?
Yeah, I’d be fine with assuming either one of us could be correct as a baseline. I hesitated when posting this at first because it’s hard to ask that question without sounding like an asshole, I appreciate the measured response as I was not trying to be aggressive.
Like you said, my perception of neurodivergence in others could be entirely incorrect, I have no way of knowing.
So there are two potential explanations there. The one where I don't see neurodivergence where it does exist and the other one where you do see it where it does not. Would you be OK with 50/50 probability each of these options being right as the baseline assumption?